I have a mineral interest in Texas where a well has been drilled. I cannot find any evidence of a lease or receivership lease. Interest was conveyed by Mineral Deed which includes some interest that was developed after receivership lease was executed. What should I do to pursue revenue from interest that was never leased?
Find out who operates the leasehold and contact them. Be prepared to show your ownership documents that were filed in the county. If there’s been a well drilled, you are an unleaded mineral holder and should receive your proportionate share of revenues, less the reasonable expenses of production. Note you won’t get anything until the well has paid out to the operator. Generally, you should not be treated as a non operating working interest, unless you sign an operating agreement.
Your post is confusing re receivership lease. First you say no evidence of receivership lease and then you say some interest was developed after receivership lease was executed. If there is a receivership lease on your minerals, then it will take more work to move royalties to your name. First step is to go to operator with your deed and any other chain of title documents that you have. Operator may ask for title going back through the person who sold to you. This is to determine the net mineral interest that you own in the acreage cited in your deed. Operator will have a title opinion that may or may not list your seller, depending on when the well was drilled and if there is clear title history into your seller.
Good point. Possibly there was a receivership lease over one tract but not covering other acreage.
r w,
That is the case. The mineral deed covered a proportionate interest in over 2700 acres. The receivership lease did not include two different 320 acre tracts. I have all the documents mentioned. Thanks to all for their replies.