I've been asked to sign a stipulation clarifying mineral rights interest on a deed from when Dad sold a portion of the surface he owned. Dad is no longer around to ask, and the landman and I understand the following clause differently:
... County of Weld, State of Colorado, save and except 3/4ths of all the oil, gas, and other minerals in, on and under the above described land
When Dad purchased the land, 1/2 the mineral rights had been held by a previous owner.
The question of the hour is: what is my mineral interest now?
Or, stated differently: what is the mineral interest conveyed to the purchaser by the above deed language?
Is it advisable to execute a stipulation, or is this language sufficiently clear?