Taxed in Taylor county TX on a well that is entirely in Fisher county?

Accounting and Taxes
1

Just when I think I am starting to understand a topic I get hit with something seemingly out of the blue that I cannot explain or understand. What am I missing? I have attached a 4 page document. The first page is an excerpt of the mineral deed from which I inherited royalty interest in a group of wells. Examining this document shows that I have an interest in 5 tracts, all in Fisher county TX. The second page is the as-complete plat from the Railroad comm for one of the wells. It shows the well is drilled entirely within Fisher county TX. The third page is the Fisher county appraisal I received on this well. The 4th page is the tax bill from Taylor county TX that I just received. What am I missing? How can Taylor county issue a tax bill on a well that resides entirely within Fisher county and without first appraising the property and allowing a protest?

If my interpretation is correct ant this is totally bogus, who do I contact to correct this? Division Order clerk? Taylor county CAD? Attorney General?

protest packet.pdf (3.3 MB)

2

If property/unit close to County line one County may charge for some services not covered by other county taxes, i.e. school district, hospital,etc.

3

I would ask Taylor/Fisher County why Fisher and Taylor are charging for Trent ISD. Trent, Tx is in Taylor Co. Taxes might be shared.

4

The appraisal statement shows your minerals tract is divided between 2 school districts, Sweetwater and Trent. So value will be divided by percentage of acreage in each district. Looks like Trent ISD is in 2 counties and its taxes are being assessed by Taylor County, probably because most of Trent ISD is in Taylor County. Taylor will base on appraisal value set by Fisher County. Your Fisher tax statement should only show Sweetwater ISD. Confirm with county tax collector. This is situation in a number of Texas counties.