I agreed to sell the mineral rights I own to land I inherited, a geographically defined portion of a large land trust. I believe that I retain surface rights, for example to charge a rent to permit a new pipeline to run over the land. Am I right? Thanks.
Sold mineral rights, do I still own land rights (e.g., should a pipeline be laid)?
It depends on whether you owned both surface and minerals at the time of sale and the exact wording in the deed. Deed language will prevail over your intentions.