we r thinking of selling mineral rights since we r stuck in a 1928 lease. We own 100 % mineral rights on 52 acres but only 50% royalties. If we sell them do we get paid for the 52 acres mineral rights or the 50% royalties
You'll be paid directly proportional to your royalties, since that affects the revenues received. They would still buy all 52 acres, but the price would be discounted by 50%. So, it would be the same price as if you owned 100% of the royalty under 26 acres. What is the royalty provided for in the lease, 1/8th?
Also, do you have a state/county and legal description for us?