Upon my mother's death, my sister and I inherited a portion of an oil lease that my grandfather had purchased sometime in the 1940's or 1950's. I am not sure if I still own a portion of the surface land. Lately, I have been getting offers from various companies to purchase that portion. My sister died several years ago and from what I understand, my parent's will indicated that all properties would go to the surviving sister upon their deaths if one of us were deceased.
Right before her death, my sister forced a sale of the property, but even after the sale, my mother's name and my name continue to be listed as the owners of a portion of the well according to the Midland Texas County tax records. I have paid the taxes on the property even after the sale. I have also not received any money so I don't know if the well is producing or not. Part of the problem is that I did not change my address for the well when we moved since I thought it was sold. I understand that some of the letters that I have been receiving are "lost leads" so to speak, but there is always a statement in the offers to the effect that they have checked for the owner and the offers are to me.
I called the landman who purchased what I thought was the total property still owned and he stated that he would reimburse me for the taxes. However, I have not allowed that until I am able to do some research or get help to ascertain whether there was another portion of the well that is still owned by me or whether he did not change the ownership on the tax rolls.
A representative from the Midland Tax Assessor told me that with my name on the tax rolls that I was the owner according to them. I seem to remember that my mother had said something a long time ago about purchasing another share of the well and so upon her death there would have been 2 full shares. My sister and I sold one share that we thought was the only share and the money was split between the 2 of us.
So, I have 2 questions, how do I know that there is another share and it still belongs to me? And the second question is that in Texas is there a statute of limitations for a buyer to change the ownership title so that ownership was not changed would it stay my property by his default?
I would appreciate any information that might help me and/or direct me to how I can solve this question of ownership.