I have recently been reviewing a family deed inwhich my grandparents who owned both the surface and mineral rights transfered the property via a deed into their living trust. There were multiple properties involved in the deed each with an attached discription. On one of those had a discription that read "surface only" but did not specifically reserve the minerals as the other property discriptions did. My quesiton? Does the term "surface only" without a specific reservation i.e. 1/8 of 1/2 etc constitute a reservation of minerals? This Property is in Texas.