When my Grandpa Luther died my Grandmother sold their land in Okahoma City, OK, but kept the mineral rights for her kids, three girls and two boys (one of which was my father). This meant any royalties that where earned were split equally between the siblings after her death.
My Grandmother also purchased a farm in South Texas, Hildago County and split the land between her five children. Whenever the land was sold, the mineral rights WERE NEVER SOLD.
My question is: Even if the land of this farm was sold, the mineral rights WERE NOT, and I have the DEED saying so . . therefore, if drilling is done on ANY PART of this land through a lease, shouldn't royalty money be split between the heirs of this farm land?
Thank you so much for any help you can give me.