I have a basic question. I purchased a tract of land several years ago via warranty deed. The WD did not state that the seller was witholding any mineral rights. In searching the deed history, I see that the seller did in fact own a 1/2 interest in the mineral rights on the property when I purchased the tract.
My question is this: do the seller's mineral rights pass with a warranty deed unless otherwise stated or must you have a separate mineral rights deed? If a separate mineral rights deed is needed I would guess I am out of luck since the transaction took place several years ago.
Thanks in advance.