Recently came across a mineral lease executed by husband and wife as lessor. Husband then sold the royalty without any acknowledgement or consent by wife. The minerals were acquired after marriage.
Due to the lease being in the name of both husband and wife and due to the transfer only being executed by husband (for benefit of people other than wife) without any known acknowledgement of wife, is this conveyance void, voidable, applicable only to 50% of the communal estate or something else?